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Hell is Made Holy

How the Dead Sea Scrolls and the Book of Revelation show that the wicked and hell cease to exist

Over 75 Free Online Bible Commentaries
Pulpit
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Keil & Delitzsch
Matthew Henry

Visit author’s web site at www.davidaaronbeaty.com

By David Aaron Beaty

Chapter 12

The Language of Action with Endless Results and Finite Duration

This all leads us back to the looming question of whether or not the specific language and Greek words chosen by the Holy Spirit and John in Revelation 14:11; 19:3; & 20:10 can be in harmony with the final end of the wicked being nothing but ashes without violating the rules of correct Greek word usage. If Revelation was to be understandable to its ancient audience, then it must have been intelligible to those who read Greek by using Greek words in the way that Greek readers would understand them. On that topic, an important thing to understand about the Greek word αἰών, aion, Strong's word G165, forever, age is that it is used in ancient Greek and in the Bible to describe verbal actions or events which have endless results, but do not themselves consist of an endless process or action. Even the stronger doubled up Greek phrases made up of two of G165, like "age of the age", "αἰῶνα τοῦ αἰῶνος" used extensively in the Septuagint, and its close plural form cousin like "ages of the ages", "αἰῶνας τῶν αἰώνων" used extensively in the New Testament, are used in contexts which force us to understand them to be describing the endlessness of the results of a process or action and not the endlessness of the process or action itself. These phrases are of course the ones that are both most commonly translated as "forever and ever", instead of their literal translations, "age of the age" and "ages of the ages". Several uses of the not doubled up word use of αἰών, all by its onesie in singular inflected form, which obviously denote endless results and not endless processes or actions from the New Testament and the Septuagint are below. The first two passages from Hebrews and Jude use specialized Greek verb tenses which specifically denote past one and done action, so we have even more confidence that the action being described by αἰών is not ongoing. The action is done. The results are ongoing:

[Hebrews 7:28 NASB20] 28 For the Law appoints men as high priests who are weak, but the word of the oath, which came after the Law, appoints a Son, who has been made perfect forever.

[Jude 1:13 NASB20] 13 wild waves of the sea, churning up their own shameful deeds like dirty foam; wandering stars, for whom the gloom of darkness has been reserved forever.

[Genesis 13:14-15 LES2] 14 God said to Abram (after lot parted ways with him), "Look up with your eyes and look, from the place where you are now to the north and the south and the east and the sea, 15 because I will give you and your offspring all the land that you see, forever.

And then some examples of the composite doubled up phrases describing verbal actions that have endless results and not endless actions or processes are here from the Septuagint and church father Clement:

[Psalm 9:5 NETS] You rebuked nations, and the impious perished; their name you blotted out forever and forever and ever.

[Tobit 14:14-15 NETS Sinaiticus manuscript only] 14 Then he died honorably at the age of one hundred seventeen years. 15 And before he died he saw and heard of the destruction of Nineue, and he saw its captivity being led into Media, which Achiacharos, the king of Media, had taken captive. And he blessed God for all the things that he had done to the sons of Nineue and Athouria; before he died he rejoiced over Nineue, and he blessed the Lord God forever and ever. Amen.

[Psalm 111:7-8 NETS] 7 Works of his hands are truth and justice; trustworthy are all his commandments, 8 fixed forever and ever, made in truth and uprightness.

[Psalm 92:7-9 NETS] 7 When sinners sprang up like grass also all who practice lawlessness popped up so that they may be destroyed forever and ever. 8 But you are most high forever, O Lord, because, look, your enemies, O Lord, 9 because, look, your enemies shall perish and all those who practice lawlessness shall be scattered.

[Clement's "Letter to the Corinthians" 45:8, 1st century AD] But those who endured in faith inherited glory and honor, and were taken up and were written by God in the memory of him into the ages of the ages. Amen. (Hoole, 1885)

From these examples above, we can clearly see that both the Greek word αἰών by its onesie, and the composite phrases in which the word is doubled up, can be used to describe the results of an action or process as endless, without necessarily describing the action or process itself as being endless. It is the context surrounding the word αἰών and/or the doubled up phrases which inform us whether the duration of results or the duration of process/action are being modified. Of course, in the case of the doubled up phrases in Revelation, the entire Bible is the context. The scriptures that I have shown you that John and the Holy Spirit are pointing to from Revelation, these are the context. All this context urges us to at least consider that the doubled up αἰών phrases in Revelation might be referring to endless results and not endless processes of smoke going up endlessly and torment going on endlessly.

We might also consider the context of the Old Testament sacrificial system in which the smoke of the sacrifices was a symbol and sign of God's satisfaction with the payment for sin which a sacrifice was:

Leviticus 1:9, 13, 17; 3:5, 16; 4:31; 6:15; 8:21, 28; 17:6; Numbers 18:17

If we combine all three of the Pentateuch descriptions of the continual morning and evening regular sacrifice which characteristically bear the concepts of burning day and night, smoke going up from generation to generation/forever, it will never be extinguished; we find it also described with smoke which is a sign of God's satisfaction:

Leviticus 6:8-13; Numbers 28:2-6; Exodus 29:38-42

If the smoke is a symbol of God's satisfaction with a sacrifice, is it possible that the doubled up αἰών phrases in Revelation about smoke going up "forever and ever" are describing the endless results of the smoke, or in other words describing that God's vengeance is endlessly, permanently satisfied with these last and final sacrifices of wicked people and evil Babylon? I want to be very careful at this point to clarify that we see in scripture that God does not take pleasure in the sacrifice or death of the wicked. We see this made abundantly clear in Ezekiel 33 and 1 Timothy 2 below:

[Ezekiel 33:11 NASB20] 11 "Say to them, 'As I live!' declares the Lord GOD, 'I take no pleasure at all in the death of the wicked, but rather that the wicked turn from his way and live. Turn back, turn back from your evil ways! Why then should you die, house of Israel?'

[1 Timothy 2:1-4 NASB20] 1 First of all, then, I urge that requests, prayers, intercession, and thanksgiving be made in behalf of all people, 2 for kings and all who are in authority, so that we may lead a tranquil and quiet life in all godliness and dignity. 3 This is good and acceptable in the sight of God our Savior, 4 who wants all people to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth.

Although there may be some language in the Old Testament which could be interpreted to mean that God was pleased with the Old Testament animal sacrifices, the sacrifice of the wicked in the end times must be in some way dissimilar to the Old Testament animal sacrifices if we are to see the two passages above in harmony with the rest of scripture. The Old Testament animal sacrifices were accompanied by repentance and submission from those who offered them. These may have been the aspects of the Old Testament animal sacrifices which were pleasing to God. The sacrifice of the wicked in the end times is not accompanied by any repentance though. So it may be proper for us to understand the sacrifice of the wicked in the end times as being an endless satisfaction of God's vengeance, but not something that pleases Him. Is Babylon really a sacrifice in Revelation though? In Revelation 19:3 when it says about Babylon "HER SMOKE RISES FOREVER AND EVER", is that really describing the smoke of the sacrifice in a way that parallels the Old Testament sacrifices? In Revelation 19:2, just one verse before Babylon's smoke is described as rising forever and ever, we read, "HE HAS AVENGED THE BLOOD OF HIS BOND SERVANTS ON HER". This mentions vengeance but it also points to another passage that describes vengeance in Deuteronomy 32 here:

[Deuteronomy 32:41-43 NASB20] 41 If I have sharpened My flashing sword, And My hand has taken hold of justice, I will return vengeance on My adversaries, And I will repay those who hate Me. 42 'I will make My arrows drunk with blood, And My sword will devour flesh, With the blood of the slain and the captives, From the long-haired leaders of the enemy.' 43 "Rejoice, you nations, with His people; For He will avenge the blood of His servants, And will return vengeance on His adversaries, And will atone for His land and His people."

Does this Deuteronomy 32 passage above sound anything like the second coming vengeance of Jesus with his sword and his arrows which are the same weapons we've seen him wielding in previous passages? The Hebrew word for "atone" in Deuteronomy 32 above is the same Hebrew word used throughout the Old Testament sacrificial system in regard to the atoning effect of the sacrifices. So just after the smoke is described rising forever and ever in Revelation 19:2, verse 3 follows with a direct reference to what could be sacrificial "atoning" described in Deuteronomy 32 above. So does the smoke rising forever and ever in Revelation 19:2 describe Babylon as a sacrifice? To answer this we can recall that we've already discussed extensively how Jeremiah 51 is an account of the destruction of Babylon which is highly parallel to the destruction of Babylon in Revelation. We discussed how the "second death" and many other similar items to Jeremiah 51 in Revelation may point from Revelation to the parallel account of the destruction of Babylon in Jeremiah 51 in the Targums. We already looked at how Jeremiah 51 describes Babylon as a sacrifice, but what about smoke? Are there any hints in Jeremiah 51 as to what the results of the smoke are? Does Jeremiah 51 describe smoke in any way which is similar to the smoke of Babylon going up forever and ever in Revelation 19:3? See here:

[Jeremiah 51:8-9 NASB20] 8 Suddenly Babylon has fallen and been broken; Wail over her! Bring balm for her pain; Perhaps she may be healed. 9 We applied healing to Babylon, but she was not healed; Abandon her and let's each go to his own country, For her judgment has reached to heaven And it rises to the clouds.

What do you suppose it is that is rising up to the clouds in Jeremiah 51 above? It looks like the smoke that rises forever and ever from the destruction of Babylon in Revelation 19:3, and it even sounds like the smoke is kind of rising to heaven, as if to say the results of the smoke are that God accepts the sacrifice? Could this be the result of the rising of the smoke that goes on endlessly, forever and ever? Could God be satisfied with the smoke, satisfied with the sacrifice, his vengeance satisfied, forever and ever?

If we take a more direct approach and go straight to the Isaiah 34 passage that smoke "rising forever and ever" in Revelation is pointing to, we find even more clues as to what the endless results of the smoke may be:

[Isaiah 34:8, 10 NASB20] 8 For the LORD has a day of vengeance, A year of retribution for the cause of Zion.

10 It will not be extinguished night or day; Its smoke will go up forever. From generation to generation it will be desolate; None will pass through it forever and ever.

The vengeance in Isaiah 34 above is just the same vengeance that we see described directly in Revelation 19 below right alongside the smoke going up forever and ever. Could this mean that the rising smoke of the sacrifices represents the endless result of the endless satisfaction of God's vengeance on the wicked? Take a look:

[Revelation 19:1-3 NASB20] 1 After these things I heard something like a loud voice of a great multitude in heaven, saying, "Hallelujah! Salvation, glory, and power belong to our God, 2 BECAUSE HIS JUDGMENTS ARE TRUE AND RIGHTEOUS; for He has judged the great prostitute who was corrupting the earth with her sexual immorality, and HE HAS

AVENGED THE BLOOD OF HIS BOND-SERVANTS ON HER." 3 And a second time they said, "Hallelujah! HER SMOKE RISES FOREVER AND EVER."

If we look at Isaiah 34:8 from the Septuagint below, we even find that the same Greek word for "judgment" is used there directly proceeding the rising smoke in Isaiah 34:10, just as the same Greek word "judgment" directly proceeds the rising smoke in Revelation 19 above. This gives us an even closer connection between the symbolic endlessly rising smoke and the endless results that it may represent, the endless satisfaction of the judgment and vengeance of God:

[Isaiah 34:8-10 LES2] 8 For it is a day of the Lord’s judgment and a year of the repayment of Zion’s judgment. 9 And its ravines will be turned into pitch, and its land into brimstone; and its land will be like pitch burning 10 night and day, and it will not be extinguished for eternal time, and its smoke will go up above; for generations it will be desolate and for a long time.

Does this all hint to us that the smoke going up in Revelation is the smoke of sacrifice that symbolizes God's satisfaction of his vengeance on sin accomplished with an atoning sacrifice of the wicked and Babylon? I'll ask again, is it possible that the doubled up αἰών phrases in Revelation about smoke going up "forever and ever" are describing the endless results of the smoke and not smoke literally going up endlessly?

We might also consider the fact that Revelation intentionally and very obviously points to the death of satan in Isaiah 27:1. Revelation uses imagery and names that equate the seven headed ten horned dragon, satan as being equal in some way to the seven headed ten horned beast which comes up out of the sea. So in some sense, satan in Revelation comes out of the sea, implying that he is the dragon who lives in the sea. In the Hebrew Masoretic text version of Isaiah 27:1, we find satan who lives in the sea getting killed! In the Septuagint of Isaiah 27:1, we find satan with the same exact two Greek word names, "dragon" and "serpent", as in Revelation. There in the Septuagint of Isaiah 27:1 satan is also getting killed. Sea the verses and the shared same exact two Greek word names in Revelation and in the Greek Septuagint of Isaiah below:

[Revelation 12:3-4, 9, 17-18; 13:1 TLV] 3 Then another sign appeared in heaven: a great fiery red dragon (δρ ά κων, G1404) that had seven heads and ten horns, and seven royal crowns on his heads. 4 His tail sweeps away a third of the stars of heaven—it hurled them to the earth. Now the dragon stood before the woman who was about to give birth, so that whenever she gave birth he might devour her child. ... 9 And the great dragon (δρ ά κων , G1404) was thrown down—the ancient serpent, (ὄφις , G3789) called the devil and satan, who deceives the whole world. He was thrown down to the earth, and his angels were thrown down with him. ... 17 So the dragon (δρ ά κων , G1404) became enraged at the woman and went off to make war with the rest of her offspring—those who keep the commandments of God and hold to the testimony of Yeshua. 18 And he stood on the shore of the sea. 1 Then I saw a beast rising out of the sea, that had ten horns and seven heads. On his horns were ten royal crowns, and upon his heads were slanderous names.

[Isaiah 27:1 LES2 Septuagint] 27 On that day God will bring the holy and great and mighty sword against the dragon (δρ ά κων, G1404 ), a fleeing serpent (ὄφις, G 3789) , against the dragon (δρ άκων , G 1404) , a twisted serpent (ὄ φις, G3789) ; he w ill slay the dragon (δρ ά κων, G 1404) .

[Isaiah 27:1 NASB20 Masoretic] 1 On that day the LORD will punish Leviathan the fleeing serpent, With His fierce and great and mighty sword, Even Leviathan the twisted serpent; And He will kill the dragon who lives in the sea. Who is it who has the Hebrew name "serpent" in the Masoretic text of Isaiah 27:1 above translated by the NASB20? This is just the same Hebrew word name, "serpent," for satan in the garden of Eden in Genesis 3:14-15 being referred to in the Hebrew Masoretic text of Isaiah 27:1. Who is it who has the Hebrew word name "dragon" and lives in the sea in the Masoretic text of Isaiah 27:1 above translated by the NASB20? The translations have this all fouled up, but the Hebrew word "dragon" in Isaiah 27:1 of the Masoretic text in the NASB20 above is the Hebrew word "dragon" or "serpent", תַּנִּין , H8577, tannin. This is the same Hebrew word name for satan, the "serpent", in Psalm 91:11-13. I already showed you all these previously, but see the five passages again below which allow us to confidently identify satan, the "dragon" or "serpent", תַּנִּין , H8577, tannin in Psalm 91:11-13:

[Genesis 3:14-15 TLV] 14 Adonai Elohim said to the serpent, "Because you did this, Cursed are you above all the livestock and above every animal of the field. On your belly will you go, and dust will you eat all the days of your life. 15 I will put animosity between you and the woman— between your seed and her seed. He will crush your head, and you will crush his heel.

Notice here in Matthew 4 below how satan may be displaying his knowledge of both Genesis 3 above and Psalm 91 below.............

[Matthew 4:5-6 WEB] 5 Then the devil took him into the holy city. He set him on the pinnacle of the temple, 6 and said to him, "If you are the Son of God, throw yourself down, for it is written, ‘He will command his angels concerning you,’ and, ‘On their hands they will bear you up, so that you don’t dash your foot against a stone.’"

[Psalm 91:11-13 WEB] 11 For he will put his angels in charge of you, to guard you in all your ways. 12 They will bear you up in their hands, so that you won’t dash your foot against a stone. 13 You will tread on the lion and cobra. You will trample the young lion and the serpent underfoot.

[Romans 16:19-20 WEB] 19 For your obedience has become known to all. I rejoice therefore over you. But I desire to have you wise in that which is good, but innocent in that which is evil. 20 And the God of peace will quickly crush Satan under your feet.

[Habakkuk 3:12-13 NASB20] 12 In indignation You marched through the earth; In anger You trampled the nations. 13 You went forth for the salvation of Your people, For the salvation of Your anointed. You smashed the head of the house of evil To uncover him from foot to neck. Selah

So you can see, it looks as if John in Revelation is just about falling over himself to point to the killing of satan, the dragon who lives in the sea, in Isaiah 27:1. He describes satan coming out of the sea for his readers of Isaiah 27:1 in the Hebrew, and he calls satan by two of his Greek word names that are found in Isaiah 27:1 of the Septuagint for his Greek literate audience. This is not even mentioning that when John connects in with the Hebrew of Isaiah 27:1 and its Hebrew word for "serpent" or "dragon", ןינִּ תַּ, H8577, tannin he is by association also indirectly connecting in with the other four passages above which also show satan getting killed. Does this give us any motivation at all to consider that Revelation 20:10, when it says satan, "will be tormented day and night forever and ever" is describing the endless results of the torment and not necessarily the endless process or action of it. This would just be according to the examples of this type of word usage that I've already shown you. We don't really think of torment as a process or action which has results though. So how can the result be endless? This type of thinking is unlike how the Greek word for "torment" is used by ancient Greek literate people though. The Greek word for "torment" can be used to describe tormenting which is specifically and intentionally done to achieve the results of vengeance and/or death on the one being tormented. Here are some ancient literary examples which follow. They are all written close to or before the time of the New Testament, so their word usage is highly informative about the way the New Testament uses the word "torment". They use the same Greek word for "torment/torture" which is used in Revelation 14:10-11 & 20:10 to describe the torment of wicked people, satan, the antichrist, and the false prophet. It's probably helpful too to give some thought to the idea that the word which the translators use in the following passages is not "torment" but "torture". One of the definitions for the word appearing in the dominant "Liddell-Scott-Jones, Greek-English Lexicon" and most other lexicons is "torture" (Liddell, 1996). We probably think of the word, "torture" more as something that can be done with the intention of having a result which can be endless. Those results for example being the extraction of information, vengeance, or both vengeance and death. I have underlined and boldened every English word which is translated from the same Revelation 14 & 20 Greek word for "torment" in the following four ancient word usage examples:

From chapter 19 verses 1 to 2 of "Philopoemen" written by Plutarch who lived from AD 46 to 119 we see that the enemies of Philopoemen wanted to torture and execute him for justice and/or vengeance against an enemy...........

[1] The people of Messene, wonderfully elated at the news, gathered in throngs at the gates. But when they saw Philopoemen dragged along in a manner unworthy of his fame and of his former exploits and trophies, most of them were struck with pity and felt sympathy for him, so that they actually shed tears and spoke with bitterness of the inconstancy and vanity of human greatness.

[2] And so, little by little, many were led to say humanely that they ought to remember his former benefactions, and especially how he had restored to them their freedom by expelling the tyrant Nabis. But there were a few who, to gratify Deinocrates, urged that the captive should be tortured and put to death as a stern and implacable enemy, and one more than ever to be feared by Deinocrates himself in case he made his escape after having been taken prisoner and loaded with insults by him. (Perrin, 1921, Vol. X)

And then later in chapter 21 verse 2 of Plutarch's same work "Philopoemen" we see the Revelation 14:10-11 & 20:10 word for "torment"/"torture" used by Plutarch to describe what Philopoemen's enemies wanted to do to him...................

[2] Deinocrates anticipated their vengeance by making away with himself, but all the others who had voted to put Philopoemen to death they slew, and as for those who would have had him tortured also, these Lycortas seized and held for a more excruciating death. Then they burned Philopoemen's body, collected his ashes in an urn, and set out for home, not in loose or promiscuous order, but with a blending of triumphal procession and funeral rites. (Perrin, 1921, Vol. X)

So Plutarch above demonstrates that in the Greek sense, "torment/torture" could be done with the intentionally desired result of vengeance or justice being satisfied.

1 Maccabees 7, translated from the Septuagint below, shows that the understanding of the same Greek word for "torment"/"torture" was that it could be done intentionally with the motive of vengeance, even the vengeance of God...................

[2 Maccabees 7:15-17 NETS] 15 Next they brought forward the fifth and maltreated him. 16 But he looked at him and said, "Because you have authority among human beings, though you also are mortal, you do what you please. But do not think that our people have been forsaken by God. 17 Keep on, and see how his mighty power will torture you and your descendants!"

In the "Martyrdom of Polycarp" below in chapter 2, verse 2, written in the second century AD, we see the same Greek word "torment/torture" resulting in the death of a Christian martyr and possibly also resulting in unjust vengeance. Notice the comfort of Christ always standing by the martyr, just as God was standing by Shadrach, Meshach, and Abednego in the furnace.....................

Blessed therefore and noble are all the martyrdoms which have taken place according to the will of God (for it behoveth us to be very scrupulous and to assign to God the power over all things). For who could fail to admire their nobleness and patient endurance and loyalty to the Master? seeing that when they were so torn by lashes that the....... I removed this portion of the sentence. It is highly graphic and very hard to un-see in your mind. Read this book free on archive.org if you want to see this description. .........they endured patiently, so that the very bystanders had pity and wept; while they themselves reached such a pitch of bravery that none of them uttered a cry or a groan, thus showing to us all that at that hour the martyrs of Christ being tortured were absent from the flesh, or rather that the Lord was standing by and conversing with them. (Hoole, 1885)

[Daniel 3:25 NASB20] 25 He responded, "Look! I see four men untied and walking about in the middle of the fire unharmed, and the appearance of the fourth is like a son of the gods!"

In Josephus' "Jewish Antiquities", Book 5, chapter 1, again below, we see the same Greek word "torment"/"torture" resulting in death and possible tyrannical deterrence of future behavior...................

Then Bacchides gathered together those of the Jews who had given up the customs of their country and had chosen the kind of life common to other nations, and entrusted to them the government of the country; and these men seized the friends of Judas and those who sympathized with him, and delivered them to Bacchides, whereupon he first tortured and maltreated them at his pleasure, and then made an end of them in this way. (Marcus, 1966, Vol. VII)

So by these several word usage examples just given, we can see that the doubled up αἰών phrases in Revelation describing torment and smoke "forever and ever" could be describing the endlessness of the intended results of the torment. Those endless results being endlessly satisfied vengeance and permanent death. Does that ring a bell? Have we read anything yet which may indicate that God is intending that His satisfied vengeance or an irreversible killing be the results of the smoke and the torment/torture? Of course we have. Almost the entire contents of this book are describing a deathly execution of those who oppose God, but here again below are the specific connections between the smoke, the torment, and the death and vengeance on satan and wicked people:

[Isaiah 34:8, 10 NASB20] 8 For the LORD has a day of vengeance, A year of retribution for the cause of Zion. ... 10 It will not be extinguished night or day; Its smoke will go up forever. From generation to generation it will be desolate; None will pass through it forever and ever.

[Revelation 14:10-11 NASB20] 10 he also will drink of the wine of the wrath of God, which is mixed in full strength in the cup of His anger; and he will be tormented with fire and brimstone in the presence of the holy angels and in the presence of the Lamb. 11 "And the smoke of their torment ascends forever and ever; they have no rest day and night, those who worship the beast and his image, and whoever receives the mark of his name."

[Isaiah 27:1 NASB20 Masoretic] 1 On that day the LORD will punish Leviathan the fleeing serpent, With His fierce and great and mighty sword, Even Leviathan the twisted serpent; And He will kill the dragon who lives in the sea.

Recall that the dragon who "lives in the sea" in Isaiah 27:1 above is the seven-headed ten horned dragon and beast who comes out of the sea in Revelation 12 and 13 below................

[Revelation 12:3, 9; 13:1 TLV] 3 Then another sign appeared in heaven: a great fiery red dragon that had seven heads and ten horns, and seven royal crowns on his heads. 9 And the great dragon was thrown down—the ancient serpent, called the devil and satan, who deceives the whole world. He was thrown down to the earth, and his angels were thrown down with him. ... 1 Then I saw a beast rising out of the sea, that had ten horns and seven heads. On his horns were ten royal crowns, and upon his heads were slanderous names.

It is also helpful to recall that there has never been in the history of humanity anyone who has been tortured endlessly. The torture always ended, and if the intended result was achieved, the result was always permanent. The torturer always achieved their intended permanent results of extracting information, vengeance, or both vengeance and death of the torturee. So to conceive of the idea of the Greek word for torment/torture being used in a biblical passage in Revelation to describe an intended endless result coming from a finite duration of torturing is very likely perfectly in line with the way the word has been frequently used in the Greek language.

I know it's hard to believe that Revelation is pointing to the execution of satan. The words describing his fate in Revelation 20:10 seem so definitively to describe endless torment. The descriptors of the duration seem to be piled up high right on top of each other with the intention of providing absolutely no way for us to reach any other conclusion, "they will be tormented day and night forever and ever". The only problem is that the real actual Greek sentence structure does not pile these descriptors on top of each other as you see them in the English translation. It separates them in a way that may support a different interpretation. Do you see in the interlinear translationG below of Revelation 20:10b how "day and night" is separated from "ages of the ages" by "to the"?

Original English translation with Greek text from (Robinson, 2005), Revelation 20:10b...............

καὶ βασανισθήσονται ἡμέρας καὶ νυκτὸς εἰς τοὺς αἰῶνας τῶν αἰώνων
and they will be tormented day and night to the ages of the ages

(The English translation above preserves the exact Greek word order in "forward" interlinear format, and is in agreement with numerous widely available interlinear and literal translationsG.) This separation may be a not-so-subtle hint that the two phrases play a different role which must be discreetly separated from one another for us to understand the meaning. What I am suggesting is that "day and night" describes the unbroken continuity of the action of the torment which is never significantly paused as long as it lasts, and then "to the ages of the ages" is the description of only the duration of the endless results of the action of the torment which comes to an abrupt end when satan is killed in obedient submission to scripture. His head is crushed. I know you protest. "This is day and night. It lasts forever!" Scholar Edward William Fudge in the 2011 third edition of his landmark work "The Fire That Consumes" on pages 242-244 describes how the phrase "day and night" used in both Revelation 14:11 & 20:10 is a "Greek genitival construction" which forces it to not describe the length of the duration of action. He even gives a reference to a book written by an expert in Greek grammar to support his assertion. Fudge further explains how this Greek genitival construction "day and night" can only describe unbroken continuousness of an action, not duration of the process of the action. Fudge is the godfather of conditionalism, so of course he would take this view right? We need not trust only in the godfather though. Fudge and famous Greek scholar G.K. Beale have a little back and forth debating each other about this topic in their books. G.K. Beale is an avowed traditionalist. Beale, in his massive 1999 commentary on Revelation, "New International Greek Testament Commentary", on pages 761 to 765 somewhat concedes the point to Fudge that the Greek genitival construction can sometimes describe only unbroken continuity of an action without describing the duration of the action itself. Beale though, does go on to contradict the Greek grammar expert cited by Fudge, and argues that he believes "day and night" describes both unbroken continuity of action and endless duration of action in Revelation. Regardless, I'll play to the safe average and just say that we have scholarly support from both sides of the debate over the duration of hell that the Greek genitival construction "day and night" can possibly be describing only unbroken continuousness of action and not endless duration of action. And of course, the Bible is full of examples of this Greek genitival construction "day and night" doing just that. A very obvious quasi-example of this which we have already looked at is Psalm 22. Psalm 22 is one of the six Psalms that John, not so coincidentally, is very likely pointing to in Revelation 14:11 with his use of our much discussed very rare word construction, "αἰῶνας αἰώνων", "ages ages". I say "quasi-example" because the phrase "day and night" is not actually used in Psalm 22, but this quasi-example is even more applicable to this discussion than any other use of the exact genitival phrase. Psalm 22 is the Psalm about Jesus. He cries out day and night, with no "rest", just as in Revelation 14:11, which is directly pointing to this Psalm. In spite of that, Jesus' crying out is not endless. He is delivered. Take a look again:

[Psalm 22:2 NASB20] 2 My God, I cry out by day, but You do not answer; And by night, but I have no rest.

[Revelation 14:11 NASB20] 11 "And the smoke of their torment ascends forever and ever; they have no rest day and night, those who worship the beast and his image, and whoever receives the mark of his name."

This demonstrates to us in no uncertain terms that the concept of "day and night" action without "rest" does not necessarily describe endlessness. It can and does describe significantly unbroken, unpaused action which comes to an end, even right in a passage that John is very likely directly pointing to while using the phrase "day and night" in his own Revelation text. Not much needs to be said after this, but here is a pile of other examples for skeptics using the same genitival phrase to only denote continuity of action and not endless duration of action:

New Testament: Mark 5:1-5; Luke 18:6-8; 1 Thessalonians 2:9; 1 Thessalonians 3:9-10; 2 Thessalonians 3:7-8; 1 Timothy 5:3-5; 2 Timothy 1:3

Septuagint: Psalm 32:4; Psalm 42:3; Psalm 55:10; Isaiah 60:11; Jeremiah 9:1; Jeremiah 14:16-17; Lamentations 2:18

So with all this considered, I propose that the norms of the ancient Greek language can support the idea that satan, the antichrist, and the false prophet are continuously tormented, "day and night", as long as God sees fit to satisfy his intended goal of vengeance, and then they are killed. This is because God keeps his word, "He will kill the dragon who lives in the sea." The results of their death will be endless, "to the ages of the ages", "Forever and ever". The "head of the house of evil" will be permanently crushed. God's vengeance will be endlessly satisfied. God's people will be endlessly free of satan's death and destruction. God's people will be endlessly delivered from evil. This idea that the torment of satan, the antichrist, and the false prophet has the endless result of just being dead forever can even hold up under the critique of extensive scholarship in the Greek language. In Chris Date's 2014 book "Rethinking Hell" on pages 99 to 115, Chris shows the entirety of an article entitled, "The Doom of the Lost" written by PhD scholar Basil F.C. Atkinson whose training was in the Classics, which includes extensive Greek language studies. We see specifically on pages 113 to 114 of "Rethinking Hell" that Atkinson supports the idea that the results of the torment of the devil in Revelation 20:10 are what is endless. He describes in so many words how the tormenting itself is not endless, but results in being eternally destroyed. Although he may not be specifically embracing all the language arguments that I have just described, Sigve K. Tonstad who earned his PhD in New Testament studies also argues that Revelation 20:10 is describing the endless results of Satan's torment and not endless duration. A PhD in New Testament studies involves extensive training in biblical Greek. In the 2019 Revelation volume of the "Paideia Commentaries on the New Testament" series, Sigve K. Tonstad says the

following in regard to the duration of the torment of satan in Revelation 20:10:

"As in the OT, 'forever' is often a figure of speech for finality and closure, not for duration (Jer. 15:14; 17:4; Gen. 19:28; Isa. 34:10)."

Many other scholars who are highly trained in biblical Greek also support the general idea that the various biblical words describing the punishment of the wicked as endless throughout the Bible, are describing the endlessness of the result and not the endlessness of the process of punishing. Edward William Fudge in his 2011 book, "The Fire That Consumes" is a good author to start with on this topic. Fudge earned two degrees in the biblical languages.

If we for a minute step away from the fancy and technical arguments related to the particulars of Greek language rules, there is another excellent argument to be made in support of the idea that satan's torment may be continuous, but with a finite duration and endless results. This is an argument that is instead based directly on the way we can see the Bible obviously using symbolism. As I have already described extensively back at the beginning of chapter 2, starting on page 10, we know Revelation 14:10-11; 19:3; 20:10; and 20:15 are all connected to Isaiah 34 via their shared wording and other connections. In addition to all the other connections described at the beginning of chapter 2, see again for example just the language directly shared between Revelation 20:10 and Isaiah 34 below:

[Isaiah 34:9-11 WEB] 9 Its streams will be turned into pitch, its dust into sulfur, and its land will become burning pitch. 10 It won’t be quenched night or day. Its smoke will go up forever. From generation to generation, it will lie waste. No one will pass through it forever and ever. 11 But the pelican and the porcupine will possess it. The owl and the raven will dwell in it. He will stretch the line of confusion over it, and the plumb line of emptiness.

[Revelation 20:10 BSB] 10 And the devil who had deceived them was thrown into the lake of fire and sulfur, into which the beast and the false prophet had already been thrown. There they will be tormented day and night forever and ever.

So if we are looking for a blueprint to illuminate how Revelation 20:10 is using words in its description, "they will be tormented day and night forever and ever", Isaiah 34 should be our guide. Isaiah 34 is where John is specifically and intentionally pointing us to. There in Isaiah 34, we find obvious and strong evidence that fits the interpretation I've been describing at length. Any words in Isaiah 34, whether they be Greek in the Septuagint or Hebrew in the Masoretic text, describing endless longevity, "forever" must be describing only the endlessness of results and not the endlessness of the action of the burning. All this happens in Isaiah 34 right in the presence of our notorious phrase, "night and day". Isaiah 34 must be describing only the endlessness of results and not the endlessness of the action because Isaiah 34 itself describes how Edom stops burning and turns into a plant and animal extravaganza. So Isaiah 34 is tightly related to Revelation 20:10, and Isaiah 34 clearly uses "day and night" and "forever" sandwiched right together in a similar way to Revelation 20:10 in order to describe continuous unpaused action, i.e. the rising of smoke, that has endless results but finite duration. And for the cherry on top we can switch back into wannabe Greek scholar mode just briefly and point out that the, "day and night" phrase used in the Septuagint translation of Isaiah 34, is the same Greek genitival word construction that scholars Fudge and Beale both agree can possibly describe continuous unpaused action with finite duration. So Isaiah 34 provides the blueprint for us to understand the final torment of satan, the antichrist, and the false prophet to have unpaused continuity for as long as it lasts, finite duration, and then endless results. Why else would the Bible, over and over and over again, describe satan as being killed? You might respond to me by saying something like:

"Revelation 20:10 can't be pointing to Isaiah 34 and using 'day and night' and 'forever' in the same way that Isaiah 34 is using them to describe continuous action with finite duration that has endless results. Isaiah 34 has no 'torment' mentioned in it. So how can Revelation 20:10 be following so closely along in the pattern of Isaiah 34?"

Does Isaiah 34 really have no torment in it? Does Revelation 14:11 tell us otherwise? Revelation 14:11 also uses phrases and wording to point directly to Isaiah 34, and then in its own text Revelation 14:11 describes torment. So is it safe to infer then that Isaiah 34 has torment in it? Does this below sound like it has any torment in it?:

[Isaiah 34:2-3, 5-8 NASB20] 2 For the LORD'S anger is against all the nations, And His wrath against all their armies. He has utterly destroyed them, He has turned them over to slaughter. 3 So their slain will be thrown out, And their corpses will give off their stench, And the mountains will be drenched with their blood. ... 5 For My sword has drunk its fill in heaven; Behold it shall descend for judgment upon Edom, And upon the people whom I have designated for destruction. 6 The sword of the LORD is filled with blood, It drips with fat, with the blood of lambs and goats, With the fat of the kidneys of rams. For the LORD has a sacrifice in Bozrah, And a great slaughter in the land of Edom. 7 Wild oxen will also fall with them And young bulls with strong ones; So their land will be soaked with blood, And their dust become greasy with fat. 8 For the LORD has a day of vengeance, A year of retribution for the cause of Zion.

With that line of thinking then, the text of Revelation 14:11 and the tormentuous content of Isaiah 34 above give us plenty of room to infer that all of the elements you see underlined below in Revelation 20:10 are also contained in Isaiah 34. This includes the torment:

[Revelation 20:10 BSB] 10 And the devil who had deceived them was thrown into the lake of fire and sulfur, into which the beast and the false prophet had already been thrown. There they will be tormented day and night forever and ever.

So like is pointing to like is pointing to like, and from that, the word usage of Isaiah 34 can very reasonably be selected as a highly applicable blueprint for the word usage in Revelation 20:10. The line "and they will be tormented day and night forever and ever" regarding satan in Revelation 20:10 can describe a continuous action that comes to an end, but has endless results, "unto the ages of the ages", just as its muse Isaiah 34 does.

We can make yet another similar argument about Revelation 20:10 by recognizing its tight connection to the pair of passages Revelation 14:10-11 and 19:3, shown again below:

[Revelation 14:10-11 WEB] 10 he also will drink of the wine of the wrath of God, which is prepared unmixed in the cup of his anger. He will be tormented with fire and sulfur in the presence of the holy angels, and in the presence of the Lamb. 11 The smoke of their torment goes up forever and ever. They have no rest day and night, those who worship the beast and his image, and whoever receives the mark of his name.

[Revelation 19:2-3 WEB] 2 for his judgments are true and righteous. For he has judged the great prostitute, who corrupted the earth with her sexual immorality, and he has avenged the blood of his servants at her hand." 3 A second said, "Hallelujah! Her smoke goes up forever and ever."

As described extensively back at the beginning of chapter 2, starting on page 10, the pair of passages are unmistakably and intentionally connected to Revelation 20:10 using the elements, "torment", "day and night", "lake of fire", "sulfur", and "forever and ever". As we have discussed, Revelation 14:10-11 & 19:3, with their pointing phrases, clearly utilize the approach of using "forever and ever" to describe finite duration action which has endless results. Those pointing phrases, as we have discussed throughout this book, are pointing to numerous other passages which have: "they are no more", "they will sleep a perpetual sleep and never wake up", "they cannot keep their soul alive", "they will be ashes under the soles of your feet", "destroy body and soul in Gehenna", etc. etc. on and on and on. Revelation 14:10-11 and 19:3 contain symbolic, endlessly rising smoke of sacrifices, just as in Isaiah 34, which has literal, endless, ongoing results of peace, satisfied vengeance, perfect togetherness with God, and the never-ending bond of an unbreakable covenant. Revelation 20:10 unmistakably connects to all this by connecting to Revelation 14:10-11 and 19:3 with numerous words and phrases. So should we understand Revelation 20:10 to use the phrase "forever and ever" in the same way as the pair Revelation 14:10-11 & 19:3? Of course we should, Revelation 20:10 intentionally uses the same words as Revelation 14:10-11 & 19:3, and Revelation intentionally connects satan to death in Isaiah 27:1, not endless torment. This is just like how the wicked human subjects of Revelation 14:10-11 & 19:3 are connected numerous times to just death in Revelation. So of course we should interpret Revelation 20:10 as describing the endless result of a dead serpent with a crushed head. How else would we interpret it without flatly contradicting every numerous and obvious clue that has been given to us about its meaning? Satan and his two cohorts are endlessly dead "forever and ever", having succumbed to their continuous but not endless "day and night" torment, just as we see the Greek word "torment" resulting in death in ancient Greek literature.

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